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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 05:19

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

I am still studying engineering. I feel worried being an average student. Can I get a good job in placement, buy a house, and a car? I don't know why I feel this.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are people so rude to debt collector’s? I am one and I am so tired of being mistreated. We are under paid and then have to deal with the most ungrateful, and disrespectful people. We aren’t customer service. Don’t get mad at us because YOU owe.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Warning Issued To Minnesotans About Running Fans Overnight - Duluth Country Radio

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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